I already read and ask NOT about pp 52-54, Principles of Microeconomics, 7 Ed, 2014, by N Gregory Mankiw. I understand such numerical examples that corroborate Comparative Advantage, but how can I intuit comparative advantage? I wish to quash my need to revisit these numerical examples to recollect this idea. i start with definitions from pp 52 and 53 (supra):
absolute advantage = the ability to produce a good using fewer inputs than another producer
comparative advantage = the ability to produce a good at a lower opportunity cost than another producer
First, ... comparative advantage is clearly counter-intuitive. ... Secondly, the theory is easy to confuse with ... the theory of absolute advantage. The logic behind absolute advantage IS quite intuitive. This confusion between these two concepts leads many people to think that they understand comparative advantage when in fact, what they understand is absolute advantage.
However, instead of assuming, as Adam Smith did, that England is more productive in producing one good and Portugal is more productive in the other; [David] Ricardo assumed that Portugal was more productive in both goods. Based on Smith's intuition, then, it would seem that trade could not be advantageous, at least for England.