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Source: p, Principles of Microeconomics, 7 Ed, 2014, by N Gregory Mankiw

...the opportunity cost of one good is the inverse of the opportunity cost of the other...

What's the intuition behind this inverse relationship? Mankiw only presents one numerical example with Comparative Advantage; he didn't even prove this mathematically (but here I ask for intuition).

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Duplicate: economics.stackexchange.com/questions/4472/… –  tohster Feb 21 at 17:50
    
@tohster How are these duplicates? They don't seem so. –  Law Area 51 Proposal - Commit Feb 21 at 18:59
    
They're duplicates because you are spamming the site asking for an intuitive understanding about comparative advantage from 4 different angles while adducing little to show that you have done any research to answer your own questions. This results in 4x the demand for the community's time to help you understand a principle intuitively, which comes at the cost of folks answering questions from other more researched questioners. You may certainly claim that the questions are distinct, but before you argue that you may want to look at the down votes to assess what others think of this approach. –  tohster Feb 21 at 19:28
    
@tohster Thank you for your comment. I never intended to spam the site; I asked these 4 questions because each covers a distinct idea involving comparative advantage. You wrote 'that you may want to look at the down votes', but sadly, this doesn't help because downvotes don't explain themselves. Though please advise if I can improve my questions. –  Law Area 51 Proposal - Commit Feb 21 at 19:34
    
Re: "how to improve the questions": Simple. Include in the questions some thoughts on a) what you think could be the intuition and/or b) why your tentative answer is unsatisfactory to you -which in turn validates your asking for help here. –  Alecos Papadopoulos yesterday

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