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Oct 26, 2016 at 17:07 comment added Ubiquitous @CodingDahu a good can be both normal and a complement. Normal just means that demand is increasing in income.
Oct 26, 2016 at 14:50 comment added CodingDahu @Ubiquitous: it is specified in the question that good 1 is a normal good, not a complement. If it was the case, the consumption of both goods would decrease as the price of good 2 goes up.
Oct 26, 2016 at 12:25 comment added bappers2 Perhaps this isn't a point worth making, but are we assuming there is no saving/inter-temporal trading within this model (it is after all, explicitly a micro question)?
Oct 26, 2016 at 11:51 history edited CodingDahu CC BY-SA 3.0
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Oct 26, 2016 at 6:52 comment added Ubiquitous What if the goods are perfect complements that must be consumed in the ratio 1:1? Your reasoning would then imply that consumption of both 1 and 2 would increase, which is impossible if income is fixed and the budget constraint binds.
Oct 25, 2016 at 22:20 review First posts
Oct 25, 2016 at 23:53
Oct 25, 2016 at 22:17 history answered CodingDahu CC BY-SA 3.0