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Oct 6 at 8:16 comment added High GPA Is it possible to prove that AA indepdence implies P4?
May 4, 2018 at 19:04 history bounty ended Oliv
May 3, 2018 at 12:35 comment added Oliv @201p Thanks a lot for editing your proof in response to my question. That's a beautiful and useful answer.
May 3, 2018 at 12:21 vote accept Oliv
May 1, 2018 at 19:26 history edited 201p CC BY-SA 3.0
Clarified a question from a comment.
May 1, 2018 at 19:19 comment added Oliv @AlecosPapadopoulous by the way, the answer to your question is yes because the AA theorem delivers a subjective expected utility representation with act-independent probabilities, as the Savage theorem. How this is implied by the AA axioms is a good question though (it is not clear to me).
May 1, 2018 at 17:19 comment added Oliv @AlecosPapadopoulos thanks a lot, that's very useful.
May 1, 2018 at 17:02 comment added Alecos Papadopoulos @Oliv Sure, check ftp.cs.ucla.edu/pub/stat_ser/r466.pdf and the literature therein.
May 1, 2018 at 16:57 comment added Oliv @AlecosPapadopoulos isn't it the axiom P4 (instead of P2) which requires probabilities to be act-independent? Otherwise, do you have a reference for your claim?
May 1, 2018 at 16:55 comment added Oliv @201p great answer, thanks a lot. One question: the standard definition of the STP is that $f_{E}h \succeq g_{E}h \Leftrightarrow f_{E}h' \succeq g_{E}h'$. Is your definition equivalent to this one?
May 1, 2018 at 15:03 comment added Alecos Papadopoulos (+1) A question: it has been shown that the STP requires that acts do not affect the probabilities over the events, otherwise it may not hold. Is this covered / guaranteed by the AA framework?
May 1, 2018 at 14:50 history answered 201p CC BY-SA 3.0