Technically yes, but mind the fact that GDP per capita is by definition an arithmetic mean; meaning that it reflects strictly the economy's aggregate output per person living in the country. 'Average income' can be interpreted in a number of ways, one of which is GDP-per-capita, but another is median income (50th percentile income), which can tell a very different story (particularly around recessions).

At face value, the question seems to answer itself since 'GDP-per-capita' and 'average income' and generally used interchangeably; however there is evidently some nuance here.

I hope I've answered your question.

Technically yes, but mind the fact that GDP per capita is, by definition, an arithmetic mean of a country's income; meaning that it measures directly the average economy's aggregate output per person in the country. 'Average income' can be interpreted in a number of ways, one of which is GDP-per-capita, but another is median income (50th percentile income), which can tell a very different story (particularly around recessions).

At face value, the question seems to answer itself since 'GDP-per-capita' and 'average income' are generally used interchangeably; however there is evidently some nuance here.

I hope I've answered your question.