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Sep 15, 2020 at 3:52 comment added mark leeds No problem. Like the OP, I find the details of the economic models confusing so spelling it out the way you did was useful. I never understand why the papers ( or even sometimes textbooks ) don't want to be clear and spell it out like you did. It seems like the authors in economics are not all that interested in making the papers as clear as possible.
Sep 14, 2020 at 23:34 comment added 1muflon1 @markleeds thanks for pointing it out I corrected it. Also you can edit other people’s post if you see a obvious mistake. i don’t think most people would mind and they also get notification so if they would disagree they could revert it. This being said thanks again for pointing it out
Sep 14, 2020 at 23:34 history edited 1muflon1 CC BY-SA 4.0
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Sep 14, 2020 at 23:33 comment added mark leeds @1muflon1: You're answer was great but it took me a while to notice the typo where you wrote $ln(x_{t+1}) = g_{x} \times ln(x_{t})$ instead of $g(x) + ln(x_{t})$. I would fix it but I doubt that's allowed. thanks.
Sep 14, 2020 at 16:29 vote accept BagelEnthusiast
Sep 14, 2020 at 16:03 comment added 1muflon1 @BagelEnthusiast yes exactly.
Sep 14, 2020 at 14:41 comment added BagelEnthusiast Oh wait so in your final expression, you have it as a log-linear model, which - if my econometrics are correct - leads to Mankiw's interpretation?
Sep 14, 2020 at 14:07 comment added BagelEnthusiast I thought inflation would be the difference in the price levels, especially since we're talking about a change in inflation measured in percentage points.
Sep 14, 2020 at 13:44 history edited 1muflon1 CC BY-SA 4.0
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Sep 14, 2020 at 13:38 history edited 1muflon1 CC BY-SA 4.0
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Sep 14, 2020 at 13:32 history edited 1muflon1 CC BY-SA 4.0
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Sep 14, 2020 at 13:18 history answered 1muflon1 CC BY-SA 4.0