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Nov 26, 2020 at 17:18 vote accept Lifeni
Nov 26, 2020 at 17:17 comment added Bayesian See my comment if you compare any two bundles then you have u(x1,x2) > u(y1,y2) if and only if g(u(x1,x2)) > g(u(y1,y2)) by definition of g being a positive monotone transformation. Therefore the ranking is not changed.
Nov 26, 2020 at 17:06 comment added Lifeni Hi Bayesian that makes sense and the intuition in the link makes sense but have can I formally show that the ranking of the two indifference curves is the same when 𝑔(𝑧) is monotonous?
Nov 26, 2020 at 16:56 comment added 1muflon1 @Lifeni if you think this answer answered your question consider accepting it.
Nov 26, 2020 at 16:55 comment added Bayesian You should also see that if you prefer bundle x1,x2 to y1,y2 then it must be that u(x1,x2) > u(y1,y2). If you now apply a positive monotone transformation g, you can see that u(x1,x2) > u(y1,y2) if and only if g(u(x1,x2)) > g(u(y1,y2)).
Nov 26, 2020 at 16:53 comment added Lifeni Nice that makes sense. Thank you
Nov 26, 2020 at 16:47 history answered Bayesian CC BY-SA 4.0