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Jul 14, 2021 at 16:18 comment added Dayne Fair point. We basically need an assumption that ensures that the lower boundary for V(y) is excluded in V(y') which is what you did very explicitly. In texts I think this assumption is introduced, indirectly, through production function.
Jul 14, 2021 at 5:07 comment added tdm I'm not sure your argument is correct. Negating the statement in the question does not allow you to find an $x^\ast$ for all $y'$ and $y$ with $y' > y$ (but just for one of them). As a counterexample, let $V(0) = \mathbb{R}^n_+$ and let for all $y > 0$, $V(y) = \{x\in \mathbb{R}^n_+| x \ge 1\}$. Then your assumption is satisfied, but the condition in the question is not as for all $y' > y (>0)$ we have $V(y) = V(y')$.
Jul 13, 2021 at 10:04 history answered Dayne CC BY-SA 4.0