Timeline for Indifference curves and preferences?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
8 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Jun 17, 2017 at 9:56 | answer | added | Arshdeep | timeline score: 0 | |
| Apr 22, 2015 at 2:18 | vote | accept | dexter | ||
| Apr 21, 2015 at 14:26 | comment | added | Alecos Papadopoulos | There is a problem with your notation, it doesn't render correctly. Please fix | |
| Apr 21, 2015 at 14:05 | comment | added | Pburg | They must be using a definition that two utility functions give identical indifference curves if and only if they produce the same partition of bundles. An indifference curve is a set $S_\alpha = \{x\in\mathbb{R}^n : U(x)=\alpha \}$. Let $U(x)$ give sets $\{S_\alpha \}_{\alpha \in \mathbb{R}}$ and $V(x)$ give sets $\{S'_\alpha \}_{\alpha \in \mathbb{R}}$. $U,V$ identical $\iff$ $\forall \alpha \in \mathbb{R}, \exists \beta \in \mathbb{R} \; \text{s.t.} S_\alpha = S'_\beta $. | |
| Apr 21, 2015 at 13:50 | comment | added | Pburg | I am confused about "same indifference curves but different preferences" point though. This all seems like a very legalistic interpretation (so the stated answer in the question might be right on this point, maybe they're going for a map v curve distinction), and I am having a hard time finding any precise definition for indifference curves (101 definitions are necessarily imprecise). I don't think it's a useful distinction. | |
| Apr 21, 2015 at 12:00 | answer | added | FooBar | timeline score: 2 | |
| Apr 21, 2015 at 11:16 | answer | added | Giskard | timeline score: 1 | |
| Apr 21, 2015 at 11:05 | history | asked | dexter | CC BY-SA 3.0 |