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I read an article in BusinessWeek that talked about income inequality in the US.

The article attributed the difference due to the Intel chip that came in 1971. Since that time big hi-tech companies grewhave grown in US, which caused income growth among wealthy people and also didn't lead to a relatively large growth in jobs because a lot of work was outsourced to places like China.

To what extent is this explanation valid in the US... or is it insignificant in accounting for the income differences between the rich and the poor?

I read an article in BusinessWeek that talked about income inequality in the US.

The article attributed the difference due to the Intel chip that came in 1971. Since that time big hi-tech companies grew in US, which caused income growth among wealthy people and also didn't lead to a relatively large growth in jobs because a lot of work was outsourced to places like China.

To what extent is this explanation valid in the US... or is it insignificant in accounting for the income differences between the rich and the poor?

I read an article in BusinessWeek that talked about income inequality in the US.

The article attributed the difference to the Intel chip that came in 1971. Since that time big hi-tech companies have grown in US, which caused income growth among wealthy people and also didn't lead to a relatively large growth in jobs because a lot of work was outsourced to places like China.

To what extent is this explanation valid in the US... or is it insignificant in accounting for the income differences between the rich and the poor?

Income discrepency Causes of income inequality in the US and its causes

I read an article in business weekBusinessWeek that talked about income discrepency betweeninequality in the US.

The article attributed the difference due to the intelIntel chip that came in 1971. Since that time big hi-tech companies grew in US, which caused income growth inamong wealthy people and also didntdidn't lead to a relatively large growth in jobs because a lot of work was outsourced to places like China.

To what extent is the causethis explanation valid toin the US... or is it insignificant in accounting for the income differences between the rich and the poor?

Income discrepency in US and its causes

I read an article in business week that talked about income discrepency between in US.

The article attributed the difference due to the intel chip that came in 1971. Since that time big hi-tech companies grew in US, which caused growth in wealthy people and also didnt lead to a relatively large growth in jobs because a lot of work was outsourced to places like China.

To what extent is the cause valid to US... or is it insignificant in accounting for the income differences between the rich and the poor?

Causes of income inequality in the US

I read an article in BusinessWeek that talked about income inequality in the US.

The article attributed the difference due to the Intel chip that came in 1971. Since that time big hi-tech companies grew in US, which caused income growth among wealthy people and also didn't lead to a relatively large growth in jobs because a lot of work was outsourced to places like China.

To what extent is this explanation valid in the US... or is it insignificant in accounting for the income differences between the rich and the poor?

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