This question is exercise 8.8 from Ljungqvist and Sargent "Recursive Macroeconomic Theory" 3rd edition.
I repeat the question here for clarity.
There is a pure endowment economy and two types of consumer, $i=1,2$. The type-$1$ consumers have utility $$\sum_{t=0}^{\infty} \beta^t c_t^1$$ and the type-2 consumers have utility $$\sum_{t=0}^{\infty} \beta \ln c_t^2$$ We enforce that $c_t^i\geq 0$ and $\beta\in (0,1)$. The type-1 consumer has endowment stream $$y_t^1=\mu>0 \qquad \forall t\geq 0$$ and the type-2 consumer has endowment stream $$y_t^2=\begin{cases} 0 & \text{ if } t\geq 0 \text{ is even} \\ \alpha & \text{ if } t\geq 0 \text{ is odd} \end{cases}$$
We assume the consumption good is tradable but not storable. Agents have access to a complete set of Arrow-Debreu securities which are traded only at date $t=0$.
The question asks to solve for the competitive equilibrium in the case when $\alpha=\mu (1+\beta^{-1})$ and when $\alpha>\mu (1+\beta^{-1})$. It focuses on the implied one-period gross interest rates, asking whether they change between even and odd periods, and whether they are higher or lower when $\alpha>\mu (1+\beta^{-1})$ versus when $\alpha=\mu (1+\beta^{-1})$.
I first solve when $\alpha= \mu(1+\beta^{-1})$.
The Lagrangian for agent $i$'s problem at date $0$ is $$\mathcal{L}^i=\sum_{t=0}^{\infty} \beta^t u^i(c_t^i) -\lambda^i\left[\sum_{t=0}^{\infty} q_t^0(c_t^i-y_t^i)\right]+\sum_{t=0}^{\infty} \mu_t^i c_t^i$$ where $q_t^0$ is the price on the Arrow-Debreu security at date $0$ for one unit of the consumption good at date $t$. This has FOC $$0=\beta^t (u^i)'(c_t^i)-\lambda^i q_t^0 +\mu_t^i$$ as $\mu_t^i\geq 0$ and is strict if and only if $c_t^i>0$, our FOC is $$\beta^t(u^i)'(c_t^i)\leq \lambda^i q_t^0$$ For the two types this is \begin{align*} \beta^t &\leq \lambda^1 q_t^0 \qquad (i=1) \\ \beta^t\frac{1}{c_t^2} &\leq \lambda^2 q_t^0 \qquad (i=2) \end{align*}
Because $\lim_{c_t^2\to 0}\frac{1}{c_t^2}\to \infty$, the type-2 consumer will never set $c_t^2=0$, so their FOC holds with equality. For the type-1 consumer, if $\beta^t < \lambda^1 q_t^0$ then $c_t^1=0$ and if $\beta^t = \lambda^1 q_t^0$, $c_t^1$ may take any value in $[0,\infty )$ as the type-1 consumer. So, our FOCs become (with some abuse of notation), \begin{align*} c_t^1&=\begin{cases} 0 & \text{ if } \beta^t < \lambda^1 q_t^0 \\ [0,\infty) & \text{ if } \beta^t = \lambda^1 q_t^0 \end{cases} \\ c_t^2&=\frac{\beta^t}{q_t^0}\frac{1}{\lambda^2} \end{align*} I make the conjecture that $$q_t^0=\beta^t \text{ and } \lambda^2=\frac{1}{\mu}$$ Thus, by the per-period endowment constraint \begin{align*} c_{2t+1}^1 &=\mu (1+\beta^{-1}) \\ c_{2t}^1 &= 0 \\ c_t^2 &= \mu \end{align*}
The interest rate is then $-1+\frac{q_t^0}{p_{t+1}}=\beta^{-1}-1$. I think this result is intuitive as the type-$2$ consumer wants to perfectly consumption smooth since their intertemporal elasticity is $1$ and the type-$1$ consumer will let them do that since they are risk-neutral. The type-$1$ consumer is compensated with the interest rate $(1+\beta^{-1})$ on the amount they lend in even periods, $\mu$.
Is there a better way to solve this than by conjecture? I think the conjecture seems natural, but is there a more direct approach?
Now, when $\alpha>\mu (1+\beta^{-1})$, I suspect the interest rate will rise in even periods but decrease in odd periods as the type-2 consumer demands more assets in even periods and is willing and able to supply more assets in odd periods.
However, I'm not sure how to make progress. If I make the same conjecture about prices being $q_t^0=\beta^t$ and $\lambda^2=\frac{1}{\mu}$, I find that \begin{align*} c_{2t+1}^1 &=\alpha \\ c_{2t}^1 &= 0 \\ c_t^2 &= \mu \end{align*} And the gross interest rate is still $\beta^{-1}-1$. But this feels wrong since the type $1$ consumer is lending out $\mu$ in even periods and getting back $\alpha -\mu > \beta^{-1}\mu$ in the subsequent even periods. What I think I should be finding is that the interest rate is $$\frac{q^0_{2t}}{q^0_{2t+1}}=\frac{\alpha}{\mu}-1$$ so that consumption is as outline above. However, I'm not sure how to derive this and am not sure it is correct. If I conjecture that $q_t^0=\left[\frac{\mu}{\alpha}\right]^t$ then the interest rate is as I want it to be, but then $$c_t^2=\frac{\beta^t}{q_t^0}\frac{1}{\lambda^2} =\frac{1}{\lambda^2} \left[ \frac{\alpha \beta}{\mu}\right]^t$$ which blows up as $t\to \infty$ because $$\frac{\alpha\beta}{\mu}>\frac{\mu (1+\beta^{-1})\beta}{\mu}=1+\beta >1$$