I just heard Andy Haldane, chief economist at the Bank of England make the following statement about the bank's ultra low interest rate policy and accusations that it disproportionately benefited the rich:
"on average those that have debts tend to be poorer than those that have savings which has meant that our monetary policy actions with interest rates have if anything shrunk the the degree of inequality in incomes between rich and poor."
This struck me as being wrong because its the rich home-owners that may borrow four or five times annual income, whereas the poor (non-home owners) would be hard pressed to ever borrow more than half a years wages.
Is there any published analysis that would justify (or refute) the Bank of England's claim?