From what I've read only price-elasticity of demand (PED) (not price-elasticity of supply (PES)) affects the burden of tax on the consumer/producer. However, my graphs suggest PES does affect it. Why is this?? (The red lines represent the supply curves of firms with elastic PES and the blue lines are for inelastic PES. The S1 lines show supply before tax and S2 shows supply post tax. I have used a demand curve with unitary PED.)
According to the graph the proportion of tax paid by the consumer on goods with price elastic supply (P1P2AB out of P3P2AC)is significantly greater than the proportion paid on goods with inelastic PES (P1P2DE out of P3P2DF. Why is this?