I'm studying the Dornbusch overshooting model of the exchange rate. Specifically, I'm studying the model presented in a textbook by Copeland (2014).
The economy is represented by the following equations:
$y^d=h(e-p)$
$m_s-p=k\bar{y}-lr$
$\Delta p =\pi(y^d-\bar{y})$
$r=r^*+\Delta e^e$
$\Delta e^e=\theta(\bar{e}-e), \theta>0$
where $e$ is the log nominal exchange rate, $\bar{e}$ is the long-run value of the log nominal exchange rate, 𝑝(𝑝∗) is the log domestic (foreign) price level, $m_s$ stands for log nominal money supply, $\bar{y}$ is potential log output, 𝑟(𝑟∗) is the log domestic (foreign) nominal interest rate, $\Delta e^e$ is the expected change in the log nominal exchange rate, and ∆𝑝 is the rate of change for log prices.
You can simplify these equations into 2:
$p=m_s-ky+lr^*-l\theta(e-\bar{e})$
$\Delta p = \pi(h(e-p)-\bar{y})$
You then can find the long-run values of e, p, and q:
$\bar{q}=\frac{\bar{y}}{h}$
$\bar{p}=\bar{m}-k\bar{y}+lr^*$
$\bar{e}=(\frac{1}{h}-k)\bar{y}-k\bar{y}+lr^*$
What I'm confused about is the functioning of fiscal policy. If there is a permanent increase in government spending, $y^d=h(e-p)+g$, correct? From what I can gather, real shocks in the model won't lead to any changes in long-run prices. Indeed, if we plug this equation into the model, only $\bar{q}$ and $\bar{e}$ change.
I have seen an exam question which asks how fiscal policy might be used to bring $q, e, p$ to their equilibrium values after an increase in $r^*$. But surely this would necessitate a decrease in $\bar{p}$ (since $\bar{p}$ has increased with an increase in $r^*$), from which I gather isn't possible in the Dornbusch model?