No. However, the problem can be reduced to representing preferences on a Hausdorff space. Instead of trying to represent a complete preorder on a set, one can try to represent linear orders on the space of indifference classes. On the latter space, Hausdorffness is automatic if the preference relation is continuous. To see this, let $X$ be a topological space and $\succeq$ be a complete preorder on $X$ such that for every $x\in X$, the sets $\{y\in X\mid y\succeq x\}$ and $\{y\in X\mid x\succeq y\}$ are closed. Define $\succ$, $\sim$ in the usual way and endow $X/\sim$ with the quotient topology. Then $X/\sim$ is a Hausdorff space. Write $[x]$ for the equivalence class corresponding to $x$ and view $\succeq$ by abuse of notation as a linear order on $X/\sim$.
Now, let $[x]\neq [y]$. Without loss of generality, let $x\prec y$.
There are two cases: Either there exists $z\in X$ such that $x\prec z\prec y$ or there does not. If there exists such a $z$, then the sets $\{v\mid v\prec z\}$ and $\{v\mid v\succ z\}$ are open neighborhoods of $x$ and $y$, respectively. By the definition of the quotient topology, the sets $\{[v]\mid v\prec z\}$ and $\{[v]\mid v\succ z\}$ are open neighborhoods of $[x]$ and $[y]$, respectively. If there exists no such $z$, then the sets $\{v\mid v\prec y\}$ and $\{v\mid v\succ x\}$ are open neighborhoods of $x$ and $y$, respectively. Again by the definition of the quotient topology, the sets $\{[v]\mid v\prec y\}$ and $\{[v]\mid v\succ x\}$ are open neighborhoods of $[x]$ and $[y]$, respectively.
It follows that $X/\sim$ is a Hausdorff space and the problem can be reduced to representing a preference ordering on a Hausdorff space.