I am going through some micro concepts and I am confused, is there a difference between deriving preferences through indifference curves and actual preferences of the consumers?
The question I was going through was:
Jim's utility function is $U(x; y) = xy$. Jerry's utility function is $U(x; y) = 1,000xy + 2, 000.$ Tammy's utility function is $U(x; y) = xy(1-xy)$. Oral's utility function is $-1/(10+xy)$. Billy's utility function is $U(x; y) = x/y$. Pat's utility function is $U(x; y) = -xy$.
(a) No two of these people have the same preferences.
(b) They all have the same preferences except for Billy.
(c) Jim, Jerry, and Pat all have the same indifference curves, but Jerry and Oral are the only ones with the same preferences as Jim.
(d) Jim, Tammy, and Oral all have the same preferences.
(e) There is no truth in any of the above statements.
The answer apparently is C, which implies that even though Jim, Jerry and Pat have the same indifference curves, The preferences of Pat and Jim are different, while those of Oral and Jim are the same even though they have different indifference curves. How is that possible?