I want to estimate the impact that replications have on the citations. For that, I want to make a staggered diff-in-diff, comparing replicated papers vs non-replicated ones.
In my data set I have around 80 papers that were replicated (therefore my treatment group), and 160 that were never replicated. To ensure comparability, I took only empirical papers that were published in the same journals, volumes, issues, and about the same topics or JEL code.
My supervisor suggested to start with a "simple" diff in diff,to see some initial effect and then proceed to do the staggered version (and probably th a Poisson regression since my dependent variable is a non-negative count number).
For the diff in diff, my treatment dummy is "replicated", which is 1 for replicated papers and 0 for the rest. And my problem/question is with my time dummy d_time, because: as you can see, my treated observations have different treatment years. In this example, one was treated in 2021 and the other one in 2018. But I have 80 papers that were replicated in total, so each was replicated in different years. So, there is a before and after for the control group, but there is no specific before and after for all the treatment so I don't know what to compare against.
Would it be ok, that my time dummy d_time, takes the values of 0 for all my control ones? However, I think is because of this that I get collinearity in my first results:
Am I doing something completly wrong? Could someone share some light for me? I'm very new at this, I apologize if this is not clear but I hope it is.
EDIT
The suggested "simple" Diff-in-Diff would look something like this:
Would it be ok for the control group (replicated=0), to have a 0 in the post_rep column? while only the treated group (replicated=1) does have 0 and 1? Would it make sense to make such an analysis?