In blanchard's macroeconomics, in analysing the labor market and solving for the natural rate of unemployment, he explains a model where the real wage workers are willing to accept, W/P = F(u,z), where u is unemployment and z captures all other factors that strengthen the bargaining power for workers.
He then sets up an equation for the wage that firms are willing to offer, for the case of a simplified production function Y = N, where N is the number of workers, given a price level P and markup m, and calls this the price determination equation: P = (1+m), or W/P = 1/(1+m)
And the solves for equilibrium.
What is confusing to me, however, is, for the price determination equation, P seems to represent the aggregate or average price level, with m being the aggregate markup and W being the aggregate or average wage. But he emphasizes W being the marginal cost of labor. To quote the text:
The production function Y = N implies that the cost of producing one more unit of output is the cost of employing one more worker, at wage W. Using the terminology introduced in your microeconomics course: The marginal cost of production—the cost of producing one more unit of output—is equal to W.
If there was perfect competition in the goods market, the price of a unit of output would be equal to marginal cost: P would be equal to W. But many goods markets are not competitive, and firms charge a price higher than their marginal cost. A simple way of capturing this fact is to assume that firms set their price according to P = (1 + m) W
I don't understand why the marginal wage is what is relevant in this case?