It is easy to see that if $\sigma$ is mixed rationalizable strategy, then a pure strategy $a$ such that $\sigma(a)>0$ is also rationalizable, but it seems not vice versa.
For a two-player finite game, let $P_1$ be the set of all pure rationalizable strategies for player 1, then the set of her rationalizable strategies is simply $\Delta(P_1)$, which can be seen as a corollary of equivalence of iterated strict dominance and rationalizability for two-player finite games.
What is an example for a finite game with more than two players such that the set of rationalizable strategies is strictly smaller than the mixed extension of the set of pure rationalizable strategies?