If you give somebody with a high consummate some extra money, most likely it will be spent. Having this spent for e.g. groceries this will make sales man, farmer, ... employed so they pay taxes are buy groceries for their own. How huge is the multiplicator on this for modern services oriented societies?
closed as unclear what you're asking by BKay, cc7768, optimal control, emeryville, Giskard Feb 20 '16 at 12:05
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Keynesianism (what you're apparently basing this on) is incoherent and relies on arbitrary eigenvalues such as "autonomous consumption". In real life the multiplier is small and inconsequential.
However, the multiplier may appear close to one or slightly above simply because GDP increases the instant the government approves spending in public-subsidised enterprises, due to the way GDP is defined. For example, let's say the government spends $1 to subsidize Fannie Mae and this is counted as a consumption item (for whatever reason). GDP immediately increases by a dollar. Now Fannie Mae spends this on some irrelevant bureaucratic expense (buying mortgage derivatives, legal fees, financial services etc). GDP increases by a dollar again. So we just achieved a multiplier of two while having absolutely no effect on the real world.
As you can see, measured GDP is subject to all sorts of random problems that make any attempt to calculate the multiplier pointless.
Furthermore, strictly speaking, the "multiplier" is only technically supposed to apply to government consumption, and not transfers as you are asking about.