I think something like this can be seen with something like the big mac index: http://www.economist.com/content/big-mac-index, there you can see that at the cost of one big mac in switzerland you could buy 10 in Venezuela if price is taken in dollars.
In a globalized economy like the one we have right now, I think it would make more sense for any consuming good to have aproximately the same price everywhere, (if they have the resources for making the consuming good in their own country it would be then cheaper), then depending on how rich is the country the salaries would be according (salaries would be as much higher for one country to the other as how much richer is that country).
I don't know about economy, but I'd like to know why that happens. so I'd like in explanation in layman terms if possible.
Thanks for your attention.