In a New-Keynesian Model, the Consumption index
$C_t=\left(\int_0^1{C_t(i)^{1-\gamma} \ di}\right)^{\frac{1}{1-\gamma}}$
is log-linearized to
$\tilde{c_t}=\int_0^1{\tilde{c_t}(i) \ di}$
where variables with tilde are log deviations from steady state and $i=[0,1]$ are varieties of the consumption good.
Even though I feel comfortable log linearizing other equations, I have no idea how to deal with the integral. How do you get to the result? And what would a second order approximation look like?