Through the Slutsky equation I know that if the good is inferior the marshallian demand function is steeper than the hicksian demand but I cannot understand why the Compensating variation is higher than the equivalent variation. Is this because the increase in utility shifts the hicksian to the left instead of shifting it to the right (in a graph with prices as y and demand as x)?
I believe Marshallian demands are less steep than Hicksian demands because we reverse the y and x axis in economics. Thus a larger derivative of x with respect to p will be less steep since p is on the vertical and x is on the horizontal.
(image from here)