That Mexicans workers get paid less US workers is a dynamic which motivates the moving of production to Mexico. This idea can be abstracted to Developed Markets (DM) labor and Emerging Markets (EM) labor. This is driving many recent political upsets.
- Do the proponents of free globalised trade expect the price of labor to converge?
- Is there evidence of convergence?
- When will meaningful convergence arrive (example metric EM labor being paid no less than half DM labor)?
So folding in some feedback from commenters about 'why should they?'. Isn't this case analogous to supernormal profits being competed away?