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"a share that has fallen by 95 per cent has fallen by half since it has fallen by 90 per cent"

Can you explain the logic behind that?

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When the share price has fallen 90% from some price P, the current price is P $\cdot$ 10%.

When it has fallen 95% from some price P, the current price is P $\cdot$ 5%..

P $\cdot$ 5% is half of P $\cdot$ 10%.

As the share price falls from P, it will first pass through P $\cdot$ 10% before reaching P $\cdot$ 5%. So if we obsere the time period from when the price was P until it was P $\cdot$ 5%, it has hallen 95%. But if we observe the time period from when the price was P $\cdot$ 10% until it was P $\cdot$ 5% the share price has fallen by half.

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