It seems hard for me to understand the underlying logic of this sentence in Chapter 2 of this book:
They do not seem to have realised that, unless the supply of labour is a function of real wages alone, their supply curve for labor will shift bodily with every movement of prices.
Keynes is talking about the demands of labor is more likely to be a minimum of money wage rather than real wage. Why the supply curve for labor will shift bodily with different prices(prices of wage-goods?) if the supply of labor is a function with other variables(what else variables in this function?)?
I imagine the supply & demand curve intersects on a sector with the x axis being the amount of employment y axis wages, but I'm not sure if this wage should be money wage or real wage or something else.