I am wondering if it's possible to estimate what percentage of a person's salary ends up in a charity even if that person never donates? I am not an economists and I am not sure if that is a valid argument, but it seems to me that if some percentage of population is constantly donating say 10% of their income to charity, then some of other people's income will become part of that 10% due to circulation of money. Also, governments of developed countries often spends some small percentage of budget on foreign aid so part of income goes there. If we take an average person from a developed country, like UK, would it be possible to estimate how much that person's salary contributes to charity? Is this even a correct way of thinking?


closed as unclear what you're asking by Bayesian, Giskard, dismalscience, HRSE, Herr K. Apr 2 at 21:32

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