If this question is off-topic, my apologies. It seems borderline to me.

I have had several people tell me (without reference) this idea that:

Enforcement is ineffective because enforcement will only change behavior in the presence of the enforcer.

I have asked them for their source but I never get any. I also do not see it in my preliminary searches.

So, I am wondering if anyone here knows the origin of this statement or any research which supports such a claim.

  • $\begingroup$ This question would be slightly better if it was asking for research supporting or refuting the claim. (The latter is more likely.) $\endgroup$ – Giskard Jul 4 '17 at 7:44