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I'm reading this article in VoxEU.org, and there's the following paragraph:

If the statistical office is correct to assume that the quality-adjusted inflation rate is the same for creatively destroyed products as for surviving incumbent products, then the market share of surviving incumbent products should stay constant over time. If instead the market share of these incumbent products shrinks systematically over time, then the surviving subset of products must have higher average inflation than creatively destroyed products. For a given elasticity of substitution between products, the more the market share shrinks for surviving products, the more the missing growth.

From what I understood, since the entering products have a lower quality-adjusted price, and that's why they enter the market. I don't understand several things:

1) Why the «surviving subset of products must have higher average inflation than creatively destroyed products»? Do they mean by this sentence, that the the surviving products have higher quality-adjusted inflation than those which just entered? If so, I understand that this would be a sufficient condition for the creative destruction, however, I don't see how it's a necessary conditions, as it seems to be implied by the text.

2)Why «For a given elasticity of substitution between products, the more the market share shrinks for surviving products, the more the missing growth.»?

Any help would be appreciated.

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