Hotelling rule states that at equilibrium
$$\frac{\dot p(t)}{p(t)} = i$$
Meaning that rate of change of the price at time $t$ should be equal to $i$, the interest rate. Assume that the government pegs the price at the level $P^{*}$. Assume further that the shadow price at time t is given by: $Q_t =( \sigma i S_t)^\frac{-1}{\sigma}$
Show that if $\dot q(t)= i$ then $Q_t = P^{*}$
My questions:
(1) what exactly is $\dot q(t)$ or $\dot p(t)$. Is it the derivative? I couldn't make sense out of it.
(2) Is the hoteling condition given in logarithms?
(3) And what method to go with after understanding (1)-(2)
EDIT:
Yes, this is a homework question. However I never asked you to solve the question. I asked what kind of a method would be used in this case. Since the problem doesn't make sense.
$$q(t) = log (Q_t) = \frac{-1}{\sigma} log(\sigma i S_t) \\ \frac{dq(t)}{dt}=\dot q(t) = \frac{- \sigma i S_t}{\sigma^2 i} = \frac{- S_t}{\sigma }$$
So condition on $q(t)$ implies that $S_t = - \sigma i$. Which I believe there is a problem since $S_t <0$ Anyway :
since $S_t <0$ at this specified time $t$ all the resources have varied off.
If I ended up finding $S_t = 0$ then I would conclude that at this time $t$ all the speculators bought up the resource and since the resource was sold at the price $P^*$ somehow this would imply $Q_t = P^*$
But $S_t <0$ is the result we get. Which simply says that all the goods were bought plus government bought some goods. I think that implies a price $q(t)>P^*$