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I have been stuck in the next text. Can someone explain it to me? Thank you.

It is possible for effective demand in terms of wage-units to increase when the output of an individual industry is perfectly inelastic, if other industries retain some elasticity, so that the increase in effective demand for the output of that industry translates wholly into increased profits; but effective demand in terms of wage-units cannot increase when the output of all industries has become perfectly inelastic, a state corresponding to full employment

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