When micro-economists refer to "social welfare" as measure of an outcome of a competitive equilibrium economic model, or "welfare economics" in general, is this taken to include a measure of the supply side's "welfare" too? Every description of this term / concept that I've found leaves room for doubt.
I mean Production side is part of a society and part of the economic models of societies. They have an objective and a payoff for participating in the economy. So why shouldn't their welfare be included?