What are the key differences between (i) a model which features a "Kiyotaki-Moore collateral constraint"; and (ii) a model which incorporates a "financial accelerator" (a la Bernanke-Gertler-Gilchrist)?

Both have impulse responses which fluctuate due to borrowing being tied to the net worth (or collateral) of borrowers.

So would there be any difference between their modelling outcomes?


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