In light of the recent unease about interest rate rise, I've been taking a growing interest in how our economy actually works, something I've been trying to avoid. So this forum is a way for me to clarify my (mis)understanding, so for some of you, I'm sorry for stating the bloody obvious.
Banks stopped borrowing money when people or corporations or even other banks defaulted on their loans. Banks even stopped lending to each other. As a result the economy wasn't growing. So to avoid another recession (or encourage spending in the current recession), the Feds decide to experiment with QE.
With their unlimited power, they created new money into being, and bought these debts, even bad debts (bonds) and equities/assets from these banks.
My focus is on the bonds that the Feds bought, and this is where my understanding starts to get fuzzy and wtfs/minute grows exponentially....
So these banks sold their bonds to the feds, and with this new loan they received, they can start lending back to people or corporations. But this also means they are paying interest rates to the Feds, but hopefully they are making good investments on the new loan (but what if they default on this new loan, rinse and repeat???)? Because Feds have been introducing these magical money for years, bond prices were up, and thus interest rates decrease...
Quantitative tightening... But cheap money is unsustainable and cannot go on forever (I'm still unclear on this but I will research more on this later). So now the Feds are thinking of selling back the bonds (and presumably equities) they bought from the banks that sold it to them. Now, bonds price will plummet but interest rates will rise...
My question for now is:
Will the Feds now pay the banks interest rates on money that THEY magically created or are they exempt from this?
Do banks really really have to buy these bonds bank? Then interest rates just won't rise and the Feds are stock with bad debt until maturity, and it's essentially paid for, more or less.. What am I not understanding?