In general, We know that if a good is normal, then as your income increases, then demand of that good increases as well as price is fixed. Similarly, if a good is inferior, then as your income increases, then the demand of good decreases while its price is fixed.
But I read a statement that tells
“ a decrease in the price of a good will cause the quantity demanded of that good to increase if the good is a normal good, and to decrease if the good is an inferior good”
I cannot understand this statement. how can I show it mathematically or graphically.
What do you think about this statement? Do you agree or not?