I have following dynamic optimization problem
$$V(k_0)=\max \sum_{t=0}^{\infty} b^t((1-a)ln c_t+a ln(l_t))$$
Subject to $l_t+e_t=h$ and $y=Ak_t^pe_t^{1-p}$ and $k_{t+1}=i_t+(1-x)k_t$
Where c is consumption, i is inverse,ent, y is output, k is phisical capital per capita. $l$ is leisure time , e is working time. V is value function. x is depreciation rate. A is total factor productivity.
The question I asked to you is that when a is zero, the economy would accumulate more physical capital? Or not? If yes, Why?
I think that
Capital accumulates according to $k_{t+1}=i_t+(1-x)k_t$
Since investment $i_t=y_t-c_t$
So
$k_{t+1}=y_t+(1-x)k_t-c_t$
When a=0, the utility function becomes $u(c_t)=ln(c_t)$
That, househoulds get more utility from consumption with this new utility function in comparision to the previous utility function given. So consumption level increases, which decreases one period forward capital stock.
But the things that I said seems to be wrong to some extent. What do you think ? Do you have any other wise idea about this?