Consider a Cobb-Douglas Prod. Function $$Y=AL^{a}K^{1-\alpha}$$ This has the cross-partial: $$\frac{\partial^2 Y}{\partial K\partial L}=(1-\alpha)\alpha AL^{\alpha-1}K^{-\alpha}$$
Is the interpretation of this the change in the return to labour, with a change in capital (and by Schwarz's theorem, also the change in the return the capital, with a change in labour)?
Then, is it correct to say that the return to labour increases as $\frac{1}{K^a}$ with capital?