4
$\begingroup$

Exercise

The quantity is limited to 300 but the monopoly quantity is equal to 400 and gives a monopoly price of 600. But if we plug the quantity of 300 into the demand function we get a price of 700.But I am confused. Picture 2

Any help will be appreciated.Thank you.

$\endgroup$

1 Answer 1

4
$\begingroup$

Firm $i$'s profits $(\pi_i)$ as a function of its own price $(p_i)$ and the other firm's price $(p_j)$ are as follows :

\begin{eqnarray*} \pi_i(p_i, p_j) = \begin{cases} (p_i-200)\min(1000- p_i, 300) & \text{if } p_i < p_j \\ (p_i-200)\min\left(\frac{1000- p_i}{2}, 300\right) & \text{if } p_i = p_j \\ 0 & \text{if } p_i > p_j\end{cases} \end{eqnarray*}

, $i, j \in \{1,2\}$ and $i \neq j$.

We now find the best response correspondence of firm $i$ $(\text{BR}_i(p_j))$ by solving the following problem \begin{eqnarray*} \max_{0 \leq p_i \leq 1000} & \ \ \pi_i(p_i, p_j) \end{eqnarray*}

and we'll obtain

\begin{eqnarray*} \text{BR}_i(p_j) = \begin{cases} \{700\} & \text{if } p_j > 700 \\ \emptyset & \text{if } 400 < p_j \leq 700 \\ \{p_j\} & \text{if } 200 < p_j \leq 400 \\ \{p : p \ge 200\} & \text{if } p_j = 200 \\ \{p : p > p_j\} & \text{if } p_j < 200\end{cases} \end{eqnarray*}

$(p_1^*, p_2^*)$ is a Nash equilibrium of this game if it satisfy $p_1^* \in \text{BR}_1(p_2^*)$ and $p_2^* \in \text{BR}_2(p_1^*)$. This yields the following set of Nash equilibria :

$\{(p_1^*, p_2^*) : 200 \leq p_1^*= p_2^* \leq 400\}$

i.e., any action profile where both firms charge the same price, and that price lies in the interval $[200, 400]$ is a Nash equilibrium of the game.

$\endgroup$
6
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ Thanh you so much Amit. I have one question why in the range of 400 to 700 the price that the firm chooses does not exist? $\endgroup$ Jun 12, 2018 at 17:17
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ When $400 < p_j \leq 700$, firm $i$’s profit increases as $p_i$ increases to $p_j$, but it drops abruptly at $p_j$. So there is no best response: firm $i$ wants to choose a price less than $p_j$, but is better off the closer that price is to $p_j$. For any price less than $p_j$ there is a higher price that is also less than $p_j$, so there is no best price. $\endgroup$
    – Amit
    Jun 12, 2018 at 17:33
  • $\begingroup$ I see. Now I understand it. Thank you very much. $\endgroup$ Jun 12, 2018 at 17:44
  • $\begingroup$ Dear Amit I have an another question regarding Stackelberg setup. If you have time , I would appreciate to have a look. Thank you in advance. economics.stackexchange.com/questions/22432/stackelberg-setup $\endgroup$ Jun 12, 2018 at 18:25
  • $\begingroup$ why is 200 < pj ≤ 400 Nash equilibrium if the other one can keep lowing the price as in 400 < pj ≤ 700?? $\endgroup$ Dec 26, 2018 at 21:29

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge that you have read and understand our privacy policy and code of conduct.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.