Is there a strict division between the Keynesianism and Monetarism on the view of inflation. In other words, does the push and pull inflation only belong within a Keynesian framework and does inflation defined in term of balance between monetary base and supply of goods and services only belong within the Monetarism.
Alot of presentations of inflation are self contradictory to me and I thought this might be why. I.e that there is indeed two definitions of inflation not having anything to do with each other originally.
In particular I find it hard to distinguish between "An increase in the money supply" and "An increase in the aggregate demand for goods and services"
On this page ; https://www.investopedia.com/articles/05/012005.asp
The demand is governed by the existing amount of money in my opinion, i.e demand pull become secondary or a consequence of increase in money supply. Hence the "definition" of inflation as "increase in prices" seams to include two things of which we cant decide what is what.
Increase in money supply $\rightarrow$ demand pull $\rightarrow$ prices up.
Increase in money supply $\rightarrow$ prices up.
demand pull $\rightarrow$ prices up. (without increase in money)
The last implication donst make sense.