I would like to ask for your help. I recently learned that the Lexicographic Preference relation can be represented by a utility function $u:X\to\mathbb{R}$ on $\mathbb{Q}\times\mathbb{R}$ (but not $\mathbb{R}\times\mathbb{Q}$).
To recall, a lexicographic preference relation says that on $\mathbb{R^2}$, $x\succeq y$ if and only if $x_1>y_1$ or $x_1=y_1$ and $x_2\geq y_2$ where $x=(x_1,x_2)$ and $y=(y_1,y_2)$.
Thus, I would have liked to see a proof of this statement and how is it possible to build such a utility representation. I guess that we must assume first that there exist a utility representation for the Lexicographic preference on $\mathbb{Q}\times\mathbb{Q}$ since the latter is countable, but I am lost after.
Infinitely many thanks for your help!