Given two goods (where more is better), and I am consuming at a point that maximizes my utility (i.e on the budget line, with an indifference curve tangential to the budget line).
When the prices of the two goods change to an unknown, and yet I consume where my utility is the same maximum utility as before, can I conclude that the price of this new basket is the same as before?
Logically, I think it does. But on the other hand, I'm thinking about possibilities where price of good A increases, and price of good B decreases by the same amount, which leaves me stuck.