I understand that future income is less valuable than income in the present because of the concept of present value, where money available today can be invested to earn interest or can be spent to avoid paying interest, whereas money that is not collected until the future cannot generate interest income or pay interest expenses.
However, if I want to explain why future expenses are considered less costly than expenses in the present, can I use the concept of present value to explain? I know it is linked somehow, but I don't know how to put it into words.
I would appreciate any help or hints. Thank you.