I have one question in the proof for section 4.1. in Cole, Mailath, and Postlewaite (2001). $$\lim_{\varepsilon \to 0}\frac{1}{2\varepsilon}\int_{\overline{l}-\varepsilon}^{\overline{l}+\varepsilon} v(\beta(i) + \delta, \sigma(i+\beta^{-1}(\beta(i) +\delta) - \overline{l}-\varepsilon))-v(\beta(i), s(i))di$$
They say the above limit is equal to : $$v(\beta(\overline{l}+\delta, \sigma(\tilde{l}))-v(\beta(\overline{l}, s(\overline{l})),$$ for $\tilde{l} = \beta^{-1}(\beta(\overline{l})+\delta).$
I am not sure how do they this. I think if $\varepsilon \to 0$, the term inside the integral goes to 0. But, the answer they give us is to substitute $\overline{l}$ for $i$ in the integral. I appreciate if you give some help to figure this out.