# Efficient Scale is necessarily equal to zero if $MgC(q=0) >$ Fixed Cost?

Assume the marginal cost is strictly increasing and always larger than the fixed cost - in particular, at $$q=0$$ (no production). Does it imply that the efficient scale is equal to zero? (Define efficient scale as the non-negative level of production q that minimizes the average cost.) Assume $$q$$ is one-dimensional and all cost functions are continuously differentiable.

• This seems like a homework or practice problem without any work shown by the questioner. I recommend that you show what you've tried or this question is likely to be closed. – BKay Jan 8 at 14:53