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Assume the marginal cost is strictly increasing and always larger than the fixed cost - in particular, at $q=0$ (no production). Does it imply that the efficient scale is equal to zero? (Define efficient scale as the non-negative level of production q that minimizes the average cost.) Assume $q$ is one-dimensional and all cost functions are continuously differentiable.

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    $\begingroup$ This seems like a homework or practice problem without any work shown by the questioner. I recommend that you show what you've tried or this question is likely to be closed. $\endgroup$ – BKay Jan 8 at 14:53

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