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"If money is taken on Y-axis, then IC curve can touch oy-axis" here we have taken 'money' on Y-axis and 'commodity' on X-axis. Here my doubt is could we use indifference curve for one commodity? If so please explain me with an example.

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closed as unclear what you're asking by denesp, BKay, caverac, BB King, Herr K. Jan 14 at 15:22

Please clarify your specific problem or add additional details to highlight exactly what you need. As it's currently written, it’s hard to tell exactly what you're asking. See the How to Ask page for help clarifying this question. If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.

  • $\begingroup$ Please explain the model your question is referring to. The concept of an indifference curve can only exist in a setting with trade-offs. With one commodity, there is no trade-off per definition. It seems however, that you have a trade-off between consumpting and holding money, which might be two goods to derive utility from. Without further information however, one cannot be certain. $\endgroup$ – E. Sommer Jan 8 at 10:25
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    $\begingroup$ Possible duplicate of feature of indifference curve $\endgroup$ – denesp Jan 8 at 14:29