Statement: If a monopoly is producing a quantity for which its MR is negative, its total profit cannot be positive.
Is this statement correct or incorrect, and why?
I've read a lot about this, but sources tend to discuss maximizing profitability, while the question above presumes that MR < 0 (and obviously smaller than MC) but wonders about profitability in this scenario.
My hunch is that yes, it is possible, but I'm struggling to prove it.
Edit: this getting downvoted is the reason why SE is deteriorating at the rate it is. I’ll go look for a more welcoming community.