As far as I understand:
Ordinary income effect: A change in the price of good 1 will affect my future behaviour (the quantities that I will buy of good 1 and good 2). But it doesn't really affect my current position (I still have the same income to spend).
Endowment income effect: A change in the price of good 1 will affect my current position as it will be that my endowment (the initial bundle that I have) will lose most of its value. So in some way its as if a decrease in the price of good 1 had a direct impact on my income. (Depending if the individual is a supplier or a buyer of good 1 a decrease in its price might make him better or worse of)
Is my understanding of both of these terms correct?
Thank you very much in advance for your help