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I want to use the U.S. data from the World Inequality Database for a VAR analysis. However, I am confused as to why the series for the top 10% income share only runs back to 1962, while the series for the top 10% average income runs back to 1913. As there is data on total national income that runs back even farther, why has the 10% income share not been computed? I looked at some of the documentation but couldn't find an answer.

https://wid.world/data/

I realize this is a very specific question. I am hoping someone closely acquainted with the data, or even someone who worked on the data, might be able to help. Thank you.

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I have actually found an answer to my own question. In case anyone's interested, I found the data on the top 10%'s income share going back to 1913 on dr. Mark Frank's website - he collaborated on the construction WID. I suppose the series have gone missing / were excluded for some reason on the WID's platform?

https://www.shsu.edu/~eco_mwf/inequality.html

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