I'm particularly wondering about what implications the abolition of private property had for families. Since private property was to be abolished, I assume houses were not legally allowed to be traded between individuals, whether as gifts, inheritance, etc. What were the limits of this? How much giftgiving was allowed? Were gifts above a certain monetary value disallowed, or did they need to carry some "productive" essence, in the way that some will argue for a distinction between private/productive and personal property?

  • $\begingroup$ Welcome! Not sure that the title is in line with the content of the question. These questions are good but too broad to get a good answer. Perhaps you should consider one question at a time. $\endgroup$ – emeryville Mar 8 '19 at 4:52
  • $\begingroup$ Some basic information here: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/… $\endgroup$ – user17900 Mar 8 '19 at 15:19
  • $\begingroup$ My understanding is that private ownership of certain consumption goods (food, clothes, etc.) was allowed but ownership of the means of production (e.g. factories) was not. Of course, this is oversimplified. $\endgroup$ – user17900 Mar 8 '19 at 15:22

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