# Keynesian-cross analysis [closed]

I have a question from my textbook which is:

Using the Keynesian-cross analysis, assume that the consumption function is given by C = 100 + 0.6(Y – T). If planned investment is 100 and T is 100, then the level of G needed to make equilibrium Y equal 1,000 is:

I don't understand how they derived this. Could someone please explain?

## closed as off-topic by Bayesian, Giskard, BB King, Adam Bailey, Herr K.Apr 17 at 21:18

This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:

• "This question does not meet the standards for homework questions as spelled out in the relevant meta posts. For more information, see our policy on homework question and the general FAQ." – Bayesian, Giskard, BB King, Adam Bailey, Herr K.

$$Y = C + I + G$$ (assuming a closed economy)
$$100+0.6(1000-100) + 100 + G = 1000$$, because $$Y = 1000$$